A 74 year old man after angiography...

8. A 74-year-old man is noted to have purplish-discolored right third and fourth toes 4 days after coronary angiography and a creatinine level of 2.4 mg/dL (creatinine level was normal on admission). He has a history of adult-onset diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and 50 pack-years of smoking. Cholesterol crystal atheromatous embolization is suspected. Which of the following may be present?

A. Livedo reticularis
B. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and/or leukocytosis and/or eosinophilia
C. Prominent gastrocnemius pain or claudication
D. Source(s) of the cholesterol emboli are usually the abdominal aorta or iliofemoral arteries rather than the more distal arteries.
E. All of the above

which cause of the nephrotic syndrome usually responds very well ...

All India PG MCQ Question

which cause of the nephrotic syndrome usually responds very well to treatment with steroid medication

a) Membranous nephropathy
b) membranous glomerulonephritis
c) minimal change disease
d) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
e) maximal change disease

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